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Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?

10.06.2025 01:51

Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?

Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.

Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.

If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.

How does it feel to be in a marriage without any love?

Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.

There's no rule.

Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.

How will Israelis respond to someone claiming that anti-Zionism is not anti-Semitism, in the same way as anti-feminism not being misogyny and opposing same-sex marriage not being homophobia?

You'll usually find your answer there.

What's (not “whats”) the rule?

While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.

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Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.